Baseball Question.

waterninja · #1 10-29-2016, 06:15 PM

Could someone please explain to me why a batter who swings and misses on strike 3 is still allowed to run for first base if the catcher bobbles the pitch? Thanks.

Go Indians..

DiabeticKripple · #2 10-29-2016, 06:17 PM

i believe its because they dont actually need to hit the ball to run to first base. they could steal first essentially

kevinhits · #3 10-29-2016, 06:21 PM

Quote:

Originally Posted by waterninja

Could someone please explain to me why a batter who swings and misses on strike 3 is still allowed to run for first base if the catcher bobbles the pitch? Thanks.

Go Indians..

I actually did not know how that works...but a quick search of wiki...

airbornedeerhunter · #4 10-29-2016, 06:38 PM

Unless the catcher actually catches the ball, it is still considered in play. If the catcher missed it altogether and it made it to the backstop, the batter could actually make it to base unless the ball was recovered and thrown to the first baseman before the runner makes it to the bag.

ESOXangler · #5 10-29-2016, 06:57 PM

The balls in always in play unless it's foul or being held.

blgoodbrand1 · #6 10-29-2016, 07:19 PM

If the catcher drops the ball on a 3rd strike the batter must be tagged or forced out at 1st.

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waterninja · #7 10-29-2016, 07:41 PM

Quote:

Originally Posted by ESOXangler

The balls in always in play unless it's foul or being held.

So at any time if a pitcher throws a wild pitch, the batter can run? Or the catcher throws to 2nd base to try and catch a base stealer the batter can run?

airbornedeerhunter · #8 10-29-2016, 07:47 PM

Quote:

Originally Posted by waterninja

So at any time if a pitcher throws a wild pitch, the batter can run? Or the catcher throws to 2nd base to try and catch a base stealer the batter can run?

No, only on the third strike, two out or no one already on first. Batter becomes a runner and must be tagged or forced out.

waterninja · #9 10-29-2016, 08:12 PM

Ok. Thanks guys. I'm going to goggle this one. Seems like a strange rule, but no different then lots of other regs and rules in any activity. lol

TBark · #10 10-29-2016, 08:45 PM

Ya, live ball, batter can run on strike 3 dropped ball but, not with a runner already on first, unless it's 2 out then all runner can go.
So with bases loaded and a dropped strike 3 ball, catcher can throw to any base.
I've seen catch just step on home plate in that situation.

TBark

densa44 · #11 10-29-2016, 11:17 PM

Baseball has been around a very long time and all these rules have a history. Like the one you asked, less than 2 out and no one on first (so you can't use dropping the ball to start a double play). The infield fly rule, I'll let others explain. Pop fouls, contrary to popular belief once the ball is caught the runners can advance at their own risk, they have to tag up. If the ball is not caught I don't think the runners can advance.

In news papers all over Canada and the US there used to be trivia questions on real situations and you had to guess the rule.

My favorite "Can a pitcher be both the winner and loser of the same game?' The answer is yes.

I'll let the older fans see if they can guess, BTW it can't happen now.

DRE75 · #12 10-30-2016, 01:16 AM

Pitcher can't re-enter a game now, but they could in the past, so they could get the W and L based off their stats/score in each time in the game.

Skoaltender · #13 10-30-2016, 08:50 AM

Batters also used to be able to request a high or low pitch prior to each at bat. That was wayyyyy back though.

densa44 · #14 10-30-2016, 08:56 AM

If the pitcher re-entered the game he could only win or lose, but you are close. I'll see if there are any other attempts then I'll give you the answer.

CNP · #15 10-30-2016, 09:24 AM

Quote:

Originally Posted by waterninja

Could someone please explain to me why a batter who swings and misses on strike 3 is still allowed to run for first base if the catcher bobbles the pitch? Thanks.

Go Indians..

Because it's in the rules.

ishootbambi · #16 10-30-2016, 09:08 PM

Quote:

Originally Posted by densa44

If the pitcher re-entered the game he could only win or lose, but you are close. I'll see if there are any other attempts then I'll give you the answer.

Suspended game. The pitcher could have started a game for team A, game suspended....pitcher traded to team B who was losing, game resumed and pitcher came in relief for team B who goes on to win. Same pitcher could be recorded as winner and loser. Full explanation is a little more in depth, but that's the gist. It was actually used as a case example last time I was at an umpires clinic for a fairly high level of baseball. Regarding another thread, it's also why I know pitch framing is not really a thing. Well I guess it is as much as diving is a thing in hockey. You can try but the elite level of athletics extends to officials as well as players. It doesn't work.